From one perspective, arguing that Bodas de Sangre is not a fictionalization of the "Crimen de Almería" is wrong. That, uncontroversially, is Lorca's source.
From the opposite perspective, the argument is dumb because everyone knows that it is a work of fiction.
But, I argue, my argument is valid because there is some theoretical point about fictionality itself. Identifying the real life source of something seems explanatory, but it is really not.
It's just sort of an interesting side note. Apparently she really did say something like that she was pulled by a river of desire or whatnot. And Lorca was interested in the vocablos del pueblo, and whatnot. One of the reasons I would never have studied Spanish was that it was such a bad program where I studied, all they would accept as discussion would be precisely this kind of thing. I recently talked to someone who left for Harvard for that reason, 10-15 years before I was even a freshman. "I left because Spanish was so bad there, and I was too lazy to do Comp. Lit. So I had to go to Harvard, a better place but not too tough."
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