I am going to argue that translation *failure* derives from a mismatch in poetics.
That is to say, there is a definable poetics in the original text, and a definable "poetics of translation" in the effort to translate it. This can line up, as when a baroque poet translates another in a baroque aesthetic. Or there can be a mismatch. Suppose a 21st century translator tackles Quevedo and leaves out most of the baroque stuff.
But, and here it gets interesting, even an American poet of modernist tendencies tackles Lorca, and the seeming similarity of poetics isn't much help, or not as much as you would expect. It would be like Surrey messing up with Petrarch.
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