From one perspective, arguing that Bodas de Sangre is not a fictionalization of the "Crimen de Almería" is wrong. That, uncontroversially, is Lorca's source.
From the opposite perspective, the argument is dumb because everyone knows that it is a work of fiction.
But, I argue, my argument is valid because there is some theoretical point about fictionality itself. Identifying the real life source of something seems explanatory, but it is really not.
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It's just sort of an interesting side note. Apparently she really did say something like that she was pulled by a river of desire or whatnot. And Lorca was interested in the vocablos del pueblo, and whatnot. One of the reasons I would never have studied Spanish was that it was such a bad program where I studied, all they would accept as discussion would be precisely this kind of thing. I recently talked to someone who left for Harvard for that reason, 10-15 years before I was even a freshman. "I left because Spanish was so bad there, and I was too lazy to do Comp. Lit. So I had to go to Harvard, a better place but not too tough."
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